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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Nedarim 30


(a) What She'eilah did Rav Hoshaya ask with regard to a man who gave a woman two P'rutos, saying that with one of them he is betrothing her now, and with the other, after he divorces her?

(b) How did Rav Avin and Rebbi Yitzchak b'Rivi attempt to resolve this She'eilah from bar Pada?

(c) We already learned above (Rebbi Yochanan's ruling) that if a third person redeems the plants from Hekdesh, even bar Pada, who holds 'Chozros ve'Kodshos, will agree that they do not become Hekdesh.
Will this apply even if the purchaser subsequently bought them back from him?

(a) How did Rebbi Yirmiyah refute Rav Avin and Rebbi Yitzchak b'Rivi's proof, when he aroused himself from his nap?

(b) What gives a woman the Din of a third person in this regard? Why is she not like Hekdesh?

(c) Does this mean that Rebbi Yirmiyah considers her completely like a third person, in which case he will resolve Rav Oshaya's She'eilah in the opposite direction (and the second Kidushin will not take effect)?

(a) According to Rebbi Yirmiyah then, the She'eilah remains unresolved. In the opinion of the Rashba however, Rebbi Ila (in Kesuvos and later in this Masechta), does resolve it.
What does Rebbi Ila say about declaring a field Hekdesh?

(b) Then why did Rebbi Yirmiyah not quote Rebbi Ila?

(c) The Rambam too, agrees with the Rashba.
How will this ruling apply even to the case of bar Pada, when a third person redeems the plants, where the Hekdesh is not automatically effective?

(d) On what grounds do we reject the Rashba's proof from Kesuvos?

(a) Someone who forbids Hana'ah from sailors is permitted to benefit from people who reside on dry land.
What will be the Din if someone forbids Hana'ah from people who reside on dry land? May he benefit from sailors?

(b) Rav Papa and Rav Acha Brei de'Rav Ika argue over the Seifa of our Mishnah 'Lo ke'Eilu she'Holchin me'Acco le'Yafo, Ela be'Mi she'Darko Lefaresh'. According to one of them, this refers to (the inference from) the first case 'ha'Noder mi'Yordei ha'Yam, Mutar be'Yoshvei Yabashah'.
What would the Seifa then come to teach us?

(c) According to the other, it refers to the second case 'ha'Noder mi'Yoshvei Yabashah, Asur be'Yordei ha'Yam'.
What would the Seifa be coming to teach us then?

(d) What will this second opinion hold in the Reisha with regard to Yordei ha'Yam who only sail from Acco to Yaffo (where the first opinion ruled leniently)?

(a) 'Those who travel from Acco to Yaffo' might pertain only to those who do so regularly, says the Rashba.
How else might we interpret it?

(b) The Yerushalmi cites the Machlokes Tana'im in the last Perek of this Masechta, regarding a woman undertakes to become a Nazir from the time that she marries. Rebbi Yishmael holds there that her husband may annul her Neder, and Rebbi Akiva holds that he may not.
What is the basis of their Machlokes? Like whom is the Halachah?

(c) What does the Yerushalmi prove from here with regard to someone who forbade Hana'ah from sailors after thirty days ... ?

(d) Are people who go on cruises considered sailors in this regard?

Answers to questions



(a) Someone who declares an Isur Hana'ah from 'Ro'ei ha'Chamah' is not permitted to benefit from blind people, because he was really referring to people whom the sun sees.
Then what does his Neder preclude?

(b) How do we know that he did not mean what he said?

(a) Someone who declares an Isur Hana'ah from black-haired people is forbidden to receive any benefit from both bald people and from white-haired people.
Then from whom may he receive benefit? Why is that?

(b) How do we know that ...

  1. ... he did not mean to preclude bald people?
  2. ... white-haired people?
(a) Someone who declares an Isur Hana'ah from 'Yilodim', is permitted to receive benefit from Noladim.
Why, according to the Chachamim, may someone who made a Neder forbidding Hana'ah from 'Noladim' not receive benefit from Yilodim?

(b) What is the problem with the statement 'Rebbi Meir Matir Af be'Yilodim'?

(c) What does Rebbi Meir really say?

(a) What can we prove from the Pasuk ...
  1. ... in Vayechi "Sh'nei Banecha ha'Noladim Lecha be'Eretz Cana'an"?
  2. ... in Melachim "Hinei Ben Nolad le'Veis David Yoshiyahu Sh'mo"?
(b) How do we reconcile this with Rebbi Meir, who considers 'Noladim' to mean specifically people who will be born?

(c) In which point do the Chachamim disagree with Rebbi Meir?

(a) The Chachamim in the Seifa of our Mishnah say 'Lo Niskaven Ela be'Mi she'Darko Lehivaled'.
What are they coming to preclude?

(b) Is this a third opinion, or do they agree with one of the previous Tana'im?

Answers to questions

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