Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem
(a) Is a woman permitted to examine herself (before Tashmish) for her husband, and why?2)
(a) What does Eden shel Tzenu'os refer to and what does it mean?3) Shmuel makes a statement: 'Ishah she'Ein Lah Veses, Asurah le'Shamesh ad she'Tivdok', on which Rebbi Aba elaborates: 'Ein Lah Veses, Ba'ei Bedikah, Yesh Lah Veses, Lo Ba'ei Bedikah'.
(a) Why does the Gemara refute the explanation that if she has a Veses, she needs Bedikah for Taharos and not for her husband, whereas if she does not, she needs Bedikah even just for her husband?4) The Beraisa writes that, if a husband left his wife in a state of Taharah, when he returns, he is permitted to 'stay with her' whether she is asleep or awake.
(a) What is the problem with Shmuel's statement earlier?
(a) What did the wives of Rav Papa and Rav Huna Brei d'Rav Yehoshua tell Rav Kahana when he asked them whether their husbands followed the leniency of the Beraisa when they were asleep?6)
(a) A woman who has no Veses, is permitted to be with her husband, provided she uses two 'Eidim'. That is the opinion of Rebbi Chanina ben Antignos. What does Rebbi Meir hold in this case?'Ein Lah Kesubah, ve'Lo Peyros, ve'Lo Mezonos, ve'Lo Bela'os'.
(c) What do these three things mean?7) Aba Chanan says 'Oy Lo le'Ba'alah'. The Gemara gives two possible explanations of what he means.
What are they?
8) Rav Yehudah in the name of Shmuel rules like Rebbi Chanina ben Antignos.
(a) Is that not a repetition of Rebbi Aba bar Yirmiyah, who already ruled in the name of Shmuel that a woman who has no Veses is forbidden to her husband until she examines herself, and this speaks, as we established earlier, only if she deals with Taharos?