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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Nidah 22


(a) Why is a man not Tamei if he removes Zera with a splinter of wood?

(b) How does this prove that the Tum'ah of Keri is through his body touching the Zera, and not through the mere sighting, as is the case by a Nidah?

(c) What then, do we learn from the Pasuk "va'Asher *Teitzei* Mimenu" etc.?

2) We have learnt before that the makeup of Keri and Zivus are quite different.
(a) Considering that it is only the sighting of Zivus which breaks the seven clean days required for the Taharah of a Zav, how come that Keri breaks them, too?

(b) Then how can we learn from "le'Tamah Bah" that Keri necessitates only one extra day, why does it not break the entire seven-day period (if he sees on the seventh day) like the sighting of Zivus does?

(c) How do we learn from "le'Tamah Bah" that the sighting of Zera necessitates only one day and not seven?

(a) What Sha'aleh does the Gemara ask regarding the phrase "Ki Yazuv Zov Damah"?

(b) Why is the proof from the Mishnah, which states categorically that the blood of a Nidah and the flesh of a corpse are Metamei even after they have dried, not a good one?

Answers to questions


4) The Gemara resolves the Sha'aleh of whether dry blood is Tamei, from the Mishnah 'Hamapeles ke'Min Kelifah' ... 'Tatil le'Mayim' etc.

(a) Since even dry blood is Tamei, why does she need to see whether it melts?
The Gemara concludes that it is possible for a woman to miscarry in this manner. What is the miscarriage of ...
(b) red peels ...

(c) red hairs ...

... a sign of?

5) Our Mishnah rules that if a woman miscarries a kind of fish or insect, she remains Tahor. According to Resh Lakish, Rebbi Yehudah disagrees with this, just like he disagrees with the Rabbanan with regard to a miscarried piece of flesh.

(a) What does Rebbi Yochanan say to that?
We learnt earlier that, according to one Lashon, Rebbi Yochanan gives the reason of Rebbi Yehudah as being: because it is 'impossible for the womb to open without there being blood'.
(b) What will Rebbi Yochanan now say to Resh Lakish's statement?
6) According to Rebbi Meir, a woman who miscarries any form of animal or bird, is Temei'ah Leida - because the Torah wrote "Yetzirah" by their creation like it wrote by the creation of Adam.
(a) What do the Rabbanan do with the Gezeirah Shavah?

(b) What does the Gemara ask from Tanin (a large fish - a whale or possibly a crocodile, perhaps the Gemara is even referring here to mamals in general), where the Torah writes "va'Yivra Elokim es ha'Taninim ha'Gedolim"?

The Gemara tries to answer that we learn "Yetzirah" "Yetzirah" (the animals from Adam), but not "Beriyah" from "Yetzirah" (the Taninim from Adam).
(c) From which two angles does the Gemara refute this contention?
The Gemara concludes that whereas "Beriy'ah" by Adam is needed to teach us his creation, "Yetzirah" is Mufneh (superfluous) for the Gezeirah Shazah, which compares the animals and the birds (where "Yetzirah" is also Mufneh, since the Torah has already written "va'Ya'as Elokim es Chayas ha'Eretz") to Adam; whereas "Beriy'ah" by the Taninim is not Mufneh.
(d) Why is the Pasuk of "Beriy'ah" not Mufneh, too, since the Torah has already written (in the Pasuk of "va'Ya'as Elokim" etc.) - "ve'es Kol Remes ha'Adamah"?
7) According to the two Leshonos quoted the Gemara, everyone agrees that a Gezeirah Shavah which is Mufneh on both sides is irrefutable.
(a) What is the Machlokes between Rebbi Yishmael and the Rabbanan?

(b) In which point do the two Leshanon disagree, and what are the two opinions?

(c) According to Rebbi Yishmael, what is the difference whether a Gezeirah Shavah is Mufneh on one side, or on two (since they both share the same Din)?

(d) According to the Rabbanan of Rebbi Yishmael, why does the Torah need to make the Gezeirah Shavah of "Yetzirah" "Yetzirah" (Beheimah from Adam) Mufneh on both sides? What would we have otherwise been able to ask on the Gezeirah Shavah that would refute it?

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