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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Nidah 34

1) Beis Shamai agree that gentiles have the Din of Zavin, as regards their spittle and urine.

(a) Why then, is their blood Tahor?

(b) According to Beis Shamai, why is there a difference between the Ma'ayanos of a Metzora'as and her blood?

(c) What do Beis Hallel hold in both of the above cases, and why?

(a) What is the difference between the blood of a Yoledes after seven days, who has not yet Toveled, and a Yoledes before seven days - according to Beis Shamai?

(b) What do Beis Hillel hold, and over which point do they disagree with Beis Shamai?

(a) Why did Chazal decree Tum'as Zavin on all gentiles?

(b) According to Beis Shamai, why did they not decree that the blood of a gentile should at least be Metamei when it is wet because, as long as it is Tahor when it is dry, it will suffice as a reminder that its Tum'ah is only mi'de'Rabbanan?

(c) Then why did they decree Tumah on a gentile woman's spittle and urine when they are wet, but not when they are dry - just like the Din Torah of a Jewish woman? Why did they not declare them to be Tahor, as a reminder that the Tum'ah of a gentile is only de'Rabbanan, so that one should not come to burn Terumah and Kodshim?

(a) What is the Din concerning the Zivus and the Keri of a gentile? Are they Tamei or Tahor according to both Beis Shamai and Beis Hillel, and why?

(b) Why did Chazal make the the reminder by his Keri and not by his Zivus?

(c) How does the Gemara attempt to prove this Din of Keri from a Bas Yisrael who is Poletes the Zera of a gentile, and why is the proof inadequate?

(d) How does the Gemara ultimately prove it from the following statement 've('Zera) shel Akum, Tehorah be'Chol Makom, va'Afilu be'Mei'ei Yisre'eilis, Chutz mi'Mei Raglayim she'Bah'?

Answers to questions



(a) How does the Gemara reconcile the statement that the Zera of a Jew is Tamei even inside a gentile woman, with the Sha'aleh of Rav Papa: whether the Zera of a Jew inside a gentile woman is Tamei or not?

(b) What are the two sides of Rav Papa's Sha'aleh?

(a) What exactly, does Beis Hillel learn from "la'Zachar ve'la'Nekeivah" - written by a Metzora.

(b) Why can the Ma'ayanos of the Metzara'as not refer to her spittle and urine?

(c) Why then, does Beis Shamai learn that the blood of a Metzara'as is only Tamei me'Rabbanan?

(d) How do Beis Hillel counter Beis Shamai's reasoning?

7) Beis Shamai argue that we cannot learn even a Metzora from a Metzara'as.
(a) Why not, and what is the ultimate Machlokes between Beis Shamai and Beis Hillel?
In the second answer, Beis Shamai refutes Beis Hillel's argument (quoted above in 6a), because he learns something else from "la'Zachar ve'la'Nekeivah" written by a Metzora.
(b) What is that Derashah?

(c) Where do Beis Hillel learn that from?

8) The Pasuk writes "Zos Toras ha'Zav, va'Asher Teitzei Mimenu Shichvas Zera".
(a) What Sha'aleh did this Pasuk prompt Resh Lakish to ask, and what are the two sides of his Sha'aleh?

(b) Why does this Sha'aleh not apply to a Gadol?

Rava resolves the Sha'aleh from a Beraisa which explains the Pasuk "Zos Toras ha'Zav".
(c) What does the Beraisa actually say?
Answers to questions

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