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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Nidah 35


(a) Is the first sighting of a Zav Metamei be'Masa?

(b) Is the second sighting of a Zav Metamei be'Masa?

(c) What then, is the Sha'aleh regarding whether the first sighting of Zivus of a Metzora is Metamei be'Masa or not?

(a) How does the Gemara attempt to resolve the Sha'aleh from the Beraisa, which derives from "Zovo Tamei Hu", that Zivus is Metame be'Masa?

(b) How does the Gemara refute this proof from the Sa'ir ha'Mishtalei'ach?

Abaye queries Rav Yosef, who posed the Sha'aleh in the first place. But didn't Rav Yosef himself learn from "Zos Toras ha'Zav" that even a Katan is Metamei be'Zov, leaving "la'Zachar ve'La'Nekeivah" open to learn the Ma'ayanos of a Metzora and a Metzora'as?
(c) How does Abaye resolve Rav Yosef's Sha'aleh from here?
(a) What is the difference between the first sighting of a Zav and the second, with regard to seeing be'Ones, and what is the source for the Din by the first sighting?

(b) Then what is the meaning of 'Bodkin Oso' mentioned (by the Beraisa) in connection with the first sighting of the Zav?

(c) What does the Beraisa mean when it says in connection with the second sighting 'Bodkin Oso' - Why can we not say that it refers to a Korban only, and not to Tum'ah?

(d) In that case, why do not say that the Reisha too (by the first sighting) speaks about Tum'ah?

4) 'Rebbi Eliezer Omer: Af bi'Shelishi, Bodkin Oso Mipnei ha'Korban'.
(a) What is the Machlokes Rebbi Eliezer and the Rabbanan?
According to Rebbi Eliezer, it is only by the fourth sighting that a Zav has the Din of a Zavah regarding Metamei be'Ones.
(b) What are the ramifications of this statement - Why can it not be a question of Tuma'h or Korban?
The Beraisa writes, that in one way a Zav is more lenient than a Ba'al Keri, and in another way he is stricter.
(c) What does this mean, and why can the Beraisa not be referring to the first sighting?
Answers to questions


5) How does Zivus differ from Keri?


(a) According to Beis Shamai, why is a Yoledes who did not Tovel, different than a Nidah?
Beis Hillel retort that a Yoledes be'Zov, who is Temei'ah after fourteen days if she did *not* Tovel, even though she is Tehorah if she *did*, should serve as a precedent.
(b) How do Beis Shamai respond to that?

(c) What then, does the Mishnah mean when it writes 'u'Modim be'Yoledes be'Zov, she'Hi Metam'ah Lach ve'Yavesh', and what does 'u'Modim' mean?

(d) What then, is Beis Shamai's Chidush?

7) According to Rav, the Ma'ayan of the days of Tum'ah and that of Tahor are one and the same, only the Torah declares the blood of the first period Tamei, and that of the second period, Tahor.
(a) What does Levi hold, and what are the differences between them?

(b) What Kashya does the Gemara ask on Levi from the Beraisa 'Dam ha'Yoledes she'Lo Tavla ... u'Veis Hillel Metamei Lach ve'Yavesh'?

(c) And how does the Gemara answer this?

(a) If, as Levi learns, the Beraisa speaks when the blood did not stop flowing from the days of Tum'ah to the days of Taharah, what is the reason of Beis Shamai, who rules that she is Tehorah?
According to Levi, Beis Shamai holds like Rav, whilst *he* follows the opinion of Beis Hillel.
(b) But how does Rav explain Beis Hillel?

(c) Since Levi learns that even the Seifa, (by Yoledes be'Zov), speaks when she continued to see from the days of Tum'ah to the days of Taharah, why should Beis Shamai, who holds that they both come from the same Ma'ayan, agree that her blood is Temei'ah.

9) The Beraisa writes "Devosah" - le'Rabos es Bo'alah; "Titma" - le'Rabos ha'Leilos; "Devosah Titma" - le'Rabos ha'Yoledes be'Zov, she'Tzerichah she'Teishev Shiv'ah Yamim Neki'im.
(a) What do these three things mean?

(b) According to Levi, what is the problem with the third statement?

(c) How does the Gemara resolve the problem?

Answers to questions

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