REVIEW QUESTIONS ON GEMARA AND RASHI
prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem
Previous dafRosh Hashanah 28
(a) Rabah *validates* a Shofar-blast that one heard partially inside a pit
and partially outside, but *invalidates* a blast that one heard partially
before dawn-break and partially afterwards. We initially interpret Rabah to
mean that he is Yotze in the first case, even if he was standing outside the
pit and part of what he heard was an echo.
In that case, why should there
be a difference between the two cases?
(b) We already proved however (on the previous Daf) that one needs to hear
the entire blast, and not just the end.
So how do we establish Rabah?
(c) What is then the Chidush? Why might we have thought that he is not
(a) May one blow Lechatchilah on a Shofar of a Shelamim or of an Olah?
(b) Why, Bedieved, according to Rav Yehudah, is one Yotze by the latter but
not by the former?
(c) When must the horn have been removed from the head of the Olah?
(d) Is Me'ilah not applicable by Shelamim at all?
(a) How does Rava prove Rav Yehudah's theory by Olah incorrect?
(b) On what grounds does he nevertheless rule leniently, even by Shelamim?
(c) Rav Yehudah accepted Rava's ruling (though it is very difficult to
understand, since Rava was born on the same day as Rav Yehudah died - see
Rabeinu Chanan'el, and Tosfos DH 'Amar'), to permit (Bedieved) Shofar blasts
that were blown on a Shofar of Avodah-Zarah.
What do we learn from the
Pasuk in Re'ei "Abeid Te'Ab'dun ... "?
(d) Then why does he forbid those blown on a Shofar of an Ir ha'Nidachas?
(a) Rava permits a person to blow Shofar for someone who is Mudar Hana'ah
(forbidden through a Neder to derive any benefit from him).
What is the
reason for this?
(b) May he blow for him even if he is Mudar Hana'ah from the Shofar?
(c) The same distinction applies regarding sprinkling the ashes (and water)
of the Parah Adumah on to someone who is Mudar Hana'ah from him, as to
Toveling in a spring from which one is Mudar Hana'ah.
When are they both
permitted and when are they forbidden?
(a) What does the Beraisa say about someone who is under the influence of
demons? Is he considered sane or insane?
Answers to questions
(b) Then what did they mean when they sent to Shmuel's father that someone
who is forced to eat Matzah, is Yotze? Who forced him?
(c) What did Rava derive from there with regard to someone who blows Shofar
for the musical experience (or to chase away a demon)?
(d) Why might we otherwise have drawn a distinction between someone who is
forced to eat Matzah and someone who blows Shofar for other motives?
(a) What major principle can we learn from Rava (in the previous question)?
(b) How will Rava explain the Mishnah in Berachos, which requires someone
who is reading the Parshah of Shema in the Torah, to have Kavanah in order
to be Yotze the Mitzvah of Shema?
(c) How will he explain our Mishnah which requires someone walking behind a
Shul who hears the Shofar, to have Kavanah in order to be Yotze?
(d) And how will he explain the Beraisa which requires the *Ba'al Tokei'a*
to have Kavanah for the listener to be Yotze? Why is the fact that the Tana
also requires the *listener* to have Kavanah, not a problem?
(a) According to Rava (who does not require Kavanah in order to perform a
Mitzvah), why will a person who sleeps in the Sukah on Shemini Atzeres not
receive Malkos for transgressing the La'av of 'Bal Tosif'?
(b) Then why does a Kohen who adds a Berachah to the three Pesukim of
Birchas Kohanim transgress 'Bal Tosif' (Why do we not say there too, that,
once he has concluded the Mitzvah, the time of the Mitzvah is over).
(c) Initially, we tried to answer that the Beraisa speaks when the Kohen had
*not yet completed* the first of the three Berachos.
How do we then
explain the Beraisa that explicitly states that he *has*?
(a) What does one do with the blood of ...
(b) If the blood of a Chatas got mixed up with the blood of a Bechor, Rebbi
Eliezer holds that it must be sprinkled four times.
- ... one Bechor which got mixed up with the blood of another?
- ... one Chatas which got mixed up with the blood of another?
Why is that?
(c) Rebbi Yehoshua disagrees with him for two reasons. Fistly, because of
the La'av of 'Bal Tosif' (according to him, one only transgresses 'Bal
Tigra' that when the Chatas is on its own).
What is the second reason?
(a) How do we try to prove from the Mishnah in Zevachim that as long as the
Mitzvah can be performed again, the time is not considered up (like Rava
(b) How does this proof misfire, and turn into a possible counter-proof
(c) In fact, Rav Sh'man bar Aba also knew about that Mishnah in Zevachim,
and he deliberately asked on Rava from the *Beraisa* of Birchas Kohanim (and
not from the *Mishnah* in Zevachim).
Why could he not have asked from the
Mishnah in Zevachim? How is Rava's principle (that 'Bal Tosif' does not
apply after once the time of the Mitzvah has terminated) finally disproved?
(a) Rava then differentiates between *fulfilling a Mitzvah* without Kavanah
and transgressing the *La'av of *Bal Te'acher* without Kavanah.
Answers to questions
How do we
initially explain Rava?
(b) We disprove the original version of his statement however, from Rebbi
Yehoshua (in the Mishnah in Zevachim), who clearly considers Bal Te'acher
applicable even though he did not have Kevanah.
So how do we amend Rava's
(c) How will this answer the original Kashya on Rava 'Ela me'Ata, ha'Yashein