REVIEW QUESTIONS ON GEMARA AND RASHI
prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem
Previous daf Zevachim 24
ZEVACHIM 24-25 - sponsored by Harav Ari Bergmann of Lawrence, N.Y., out of
love for the Torah and for those who study it.
(a) Who sanctified the floor of the Azarah of the Beis Hamikdash (with two
Korbenos Todah and 'Shir shel Pega'im')?
What does Rebbi Eliezer say about a Kohen performing the Avodah whilst
standing with one foot on a vessel or on a stone, and the other, on the
floor of the Azarah?
(b) What do we learn from the Pasuk in Vayikra "Ve'lakach ha'Kohen"?
(c) From where do we now learn that nothing may interrupt between the
Kohen's feet and the floor of the Azarah?
(d) Having taught us that the Kohen may not stand on ...
- ... vessels (which are 'Miyn be'she'Eino Miyno' [a different material than the Kohen's foot]) whilst performing the Avodah, why does our Mishnah find it necessary to add an animal?
- ... an animal, why does then he need to add another Kohen's foot?
(a) What does Rebbi Ami say about a Kohen standing on a stone-slab of the
Azarah which has come loose and which one ...
(b) According to Rabah Zuti's version of the She'eilah, the Kohen performed
the Avodah on a spot where the stone-slab had been removed.
- ... does not intend to fix (i.e. because they have in mind to replace it)?
- ... intends to fix?
What is then
the She'eilah? What reason do we initially ascribe to Rebbi Ami for thinking
that the Avodah might be Pasul?
(c) What prompts us to retract from this explanation and decide that David
Hamelech certainly sanctified the floor of the Azarah together with the
ground down to the center of the earth?
(d) Then what is the She'eilah? Why might the Avodah be Pasul?
(a) What does the Tana Kama learn from the Pasuk in Vayikra "Ve'Lakach
ha'Kohen mi'Dam ha'Chatas be'Etzba'o Ve'nasan al Karnos ha'Mizbe'ach" (from
the fact that the Torah places "be'Etzba'o" in between "ve'Lakach" and
(b) The basis for this Limud is the word "Etzba", which always indicates the
right hand, according to the Tana Kama.
What is the source for this?
(c) What does Rebbi Shimon say?
(a) We query Rebbi Shimon in that if he Darshens the Gezeirah-Shavah, then
what difference will it make that the Torah does not write "Yad" by Kabalah
(seeing as it writes "Etzba").
To which Gezeirah-Shavah does this refer?
(b) And what is then the problem if he doesn't Darshen the
(c) What is the problem with Rav Yehudah's explanation (that Rebbi Shimon
does not Darshen the Gezeirah-Shavah, and what he really means is that the
Torah does not write 'Yad Yemin' by Kabalah)? Why would that not answer the
(d) In any event, Rav Yehudah's statement is incorrect, based on another
Beraisa. What does Rebbi Yehudah say there about wherever the Torah writes
"Yad" or "Etzba"?
(a) Rava therefore explains that Rebbi Shimon in fact, holds of the
Gezeirah-Shavah, and had the Torah written "Yad" instead of "Etzba", he
would have agreed with the Tana Kama, and applied "Yad" both to "Ve'lakach"
and to "Ve'nasan".
Answers to questions
What is the practical problem with applying "*Etzba*"
(b) How does Rav Sama b'rei de'Rav Ashi dismiss this problem?
(c) How does Abaye therefore explain the Machlokes?
(d) Does Rebbi Shimon now hold of the 'Gezeirah-Shavah' or not?
(a) Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon holds that where the Torah writes "Etzba" by
Kabalah, it requires the Kohen's right-hand, but not by Nesinah.
Pasuk is he referring to?
(b) What does he hold with regard to 'Mikra Nidrash ... '?
(c) And how does he Darshen the Pasuk in Tetzaveh (in connection with the
Par ha'Milu'im) "Ve'lakachta mi'Dam Ha'Par Ve'nasata al Karnos ha'Mizbe'ach
(d) Why is that?
(a) Based on the Pasuk "Ve'lakach ha'Kohen mi'Dam ha'Chatas be'Etzba'o" and
the Pasuk in Tazri'a "Ve'taval ha'Kohen es Etzba'o ha'Yemanis", how do we
initially interpret Rabah bar bar Chanah Amar Rebbi Yochanan's statement
'Kol Makom she'Ne'emar Etzba u'Kehunah Einah Ela Yemin'?
(b) Based on the Mishnah in Menachos, what is then the problem with
Kemitzah, where the Torah only writes "Kehunah" (but not "Etzba") What does
the Mishnah in Menachos there say?
(c) How does Rava therefore reinterpret Rebbi Yochanan's ruling?
(a) How does Mar interpret the Pasuk in Vayikra "Ve'hikriv ha'Kohen es
ha'Kol Ve'hiktir ha'Mizbeichah"? To which Avodah does this pertain?
(b) If the Kohen carried the head of the Tamid in his right hand to the
Mizbe'ach, where did he carry the right hind-leg?
(c) But did Rava not just say that wherever the Torah writes "Kehunah", it
requires the right-hand?
(d) Then why does Rebbi Shimon validate Kabalah with the left-hand (where
the Torah writes "Ve'hikrivu B'nei Aharon ha'Kohanim"), even though Kabalah
is crucial to the Avodah?
(a) If Rebbi Shimon requires both "Kehunah" and "Etzba", how can he then say
'Kol Makom she'Ne'emar Yad, Eino Ela Yemin, Etzba Eino Ela Yemin' (without
Answers to questions
(b) If "Etzba" alone will suffice (even according to Rebbi Shimon), why does
the Torah then write "Kehunah"?
(c) What problem do we have with the fact that Rebbi Shimon in our Mishnah
only permits Kabalah with the left-hand, but says nothing about Zerikah?
(d) How does Abaye answer this Kashya?
(e) But did we not learn earlier that Rebbi Shimon requires the right-hand
by the Haza'ah of a Chatas?