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Zevachim 100

ZEVACHIM 99-100 - sponsored by Harav Ari Bergmann of Lawrence, N.Y., out of love for the Torah and for those who study it.


(a) Rav Mari establishes Rebbi Shimon in the Beraisa (who includes Pesachim in the prohibition of Onan) literally.
How does he reconcile it with the Mishnah in Pesachim, where the same Rebbi Shimon permits it?

(b) In which point does Rav Mari argue with Rav Asi, who made the same distinction to explain the discrepancy by other Korbanos?

(c) Rav Ashi queried Rav Mari from Rebbi Shimon's proof (from the fact that Chazal permitted an Onan to Tovel and eat his Pesach in the evening). According to Rav Mari, what ought Rebbi Yehudah to have retorted?

(d) What did Rav Mari reply to that?

(a) Abaye too, interprets 'Pesach' literally. According to him, both cases are speaking on the day of the deceased's death, only the Beraisa speaks when he died before midday, and the Mishnah in Pesachim, when he died after midday.
What difference does it make when he died?

(b) Considering that Abaye does not consider eating crucial to the Mitzvah of Korban Pesach, why did the Chachamim waive Aninus Laylah in face of the Korban Pesach, more than any other Korban?

(c) And he proves his point from a contradiction between two Beraisos. What does the first Beraisa learn from the Pasuk in Emor (in connection with a Kohen making himself Tamei for his unmarried sister) "Lah Yitama"?

(d) What happened to Yosef ha'Kohen when he refused to render himself Tamei when his wife died on Erev Pesach?

(a) The second Beraisa discusses the Pasuk in Naso "le'Aviv, u'le'Imo, le'Achiv u'le'Achoso Lo Yitamo Lahem be'Mosam".
About whom is the Torah speaking?

(b) Having taught us 'Aviv, Imo and Achiv', why does the Torah need to add 'Achoso'?

(c) In which way does this Beraisa appear to contradict the previous one?

(d) How does Abaye resolve the discrepancy?

(a) We try to refute this proof by establishing the author of the second Beraisa as Rebbi Yishmael.
What does Rebbi Yishmael say?

(b) What would Rebbi Akiva then hold?

(c) Why would the Mitzvah of making himself Tamei override that of bringing the Korban Pesach, which after all, carries with it a Chiyuv Kareis?

(d) On what grounds do we refute this suggestion?

(a) If Rebbi Akiva learns from ''Nefesh'', the prohibition of a Nazir making himself Tamei for close relatives, what does he learn from "Meis"?

(b) If a Nazir is forbidden to make himself Tamei for relatives, why does the Torah then need to add non-relatives?

(c) Why do we Darshen relatives from Nefesh ... and not first non-relatives?

(d) Having written "Al Nefesh Meis Lo Yavo", why does the Torah find it necessary to add ...

  1. ... "Aviv"?
  2. ... "Imo"?
  3. ... "Achiv"?
  4. ... "Achoso"
Answers to questions



(a) According to Rava, even if the relative died after midday, the Onan is only permitted to Tovel and eat his Pesach after nightfall under certain circumstances.
Which circumstances?

(b) What did Rav Ada bar Masna mean when he queried Rava 'Mai de'Havah Havah'?

(c) Why did he not ask the same Kashya on Abaye?

(d) What did Ravina reply?

(e) What did Rava comment to Rav Ada bar Masna?

(a) Ravina actually based his answer on a statement of Rabah bar Rav Huna with reference to a Beraisa. The Tana there gives Yom Shemu'ah the Din of Yom Kevurah with regard to Shiv'ah and Sheloshim.
What does he mean by Yom Shemu'ah?

(b) And to what does he compare Yom Shemu'ah with regard to the Korban Pesach?

(c) Why did the Tana then mention Korban Pesach, seeing as the same applies to other Kodshim?

(d) In the case of Likut Atzamos, who collected the bones?

(a) What does the Tana mean when he concludes 'Echad Zeh ve'Echad Zeh Tovel ve'Ochel Kodshim la'Erev'?

(b) How does this create a discrepancy in the Beraisa?

(c) Rav Chisda establishes a Machlokes Tana'im.
What is the Machlokes?

(d) Even if Leil Kevurah is Asur mi'de'Rabbanan regarding other Kodshim, why did the Chachamim not permit eating the Korban Pesach, in order to fulfill the Mitzvah of Pesach?

(a) Rabah bar Avuhah answers that the Seifa speaks about a Shemu'ah, Likut Atzamos, and Kevurah which took place before Sheki'as ha'Chamah.
On what basis does the Tana permit even Achilas Kodshim in such a case?

(b) Whereas the Reisha speaks when they took place after Sheki'as ha'Chamah, where the Tana gives Yom Shemu'ah the Din of Yom Likut Atzamos, but not of Yom Kevurah.
What is now the difference between Yom Likut Atzamos and Yom Kevurah in this regard?

(c) Why do the Chachamim differentiate between Achilas Kodshim and Achilas Pesachim on Yom Shemu'ah and Yom Likut Atzamos?

(d) Then why are they stringent with regard to Leil Kevurah (even though it too, is only mi'de'Rabbanan)?

(a) How does Rav Ashi explain 'Echad Zeh ve'Echad Zeh, Tovel ve'Ochel Kodshim la'Erev'?

(b) How does this explanation dispense with the discrepancy?

(c) Why do we dismiss Rav Ashi's explanation as a joke?

(a) Rav Chisda presents Leil Kevurah a Machlokes. The Tana Kama in a Beraisa gives the time period for Aninus as the entire day of death.
What are the ramifications of Aninus?

(b) What problem do we have with Rebbi, who says 'Kol Z'man she'Lo Nikbar'?
Why can he not mean literally that, once he has been buried, Aninus no longer applies?

(c) So how does Rav Sheishes establish Rebbi, if not on the day of death?

(a) Rav Yosef queries Rav Sheishes from the Beraisa 'ha'Shome'a al Meiso ve'ha'Melaket Atzamos, Tovel ve'Ochel be'Kodshim la'Erev'.
What can we extrapolate from there?

(b) What is now Rav Yosef's Kashya?

(c) So Rav Yosef amends the Tana Kama to 'Ad Masai Mis'onenin Alav? Kol Oso ha'Yom ve'Leilo'.
What does Rebbi then say?

(d) On what basis does Rebbi Yirmiyah object to Rav Yosef's explanation?

(a) So how does Rebbi Yirmiyah interpret the Machlokes? Leaving the Tana Kama intact, how does he amend Rebbi?

(b) What have we now proved from here?

(a) What does Rava extrapolate from the fact that Rebbi holds Leil Kevurah is Asur mi'de'Rabbanan? What causes him to say that?

(b) He queries this however, from another Beraisa, where Rebbi Yehudah extrapolates from Aharon's words (in Parshas Shemini, in connection with Aninas Laylah) "Hein Hayom Hikrivu" that the night after the death of his sons, Aharon was permitted to eat Kodshim, but that in future, it would be Asur mi'd'Oraysa.
Why the distinction?

(c) What did Rebbi say? What problem does that create?

(d) How do we reconcile Rebbi's two statement?

Answers to questions

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