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prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Zevachim 117

ZEVACHIM 116-117 - these Dafim have been dedicated anonymously l'Iluy Nishmas Tzirel Nechamah bas Tuvya Yehudah by her family.


(a) What does Rebbi Shimon say in a Beraisa about ...
  1. ... the Ezras Nashim?
  2. ... Mishkan Shiloh?
(b) Why, based on the fact that Zavin and Teme'ei Meisim are permitted in Machaneh Yisrael, do we presume that it must be Machaneh Leviyah that did not exist in Mishkan Shiloh, and not Machaneh Yisrael?

(c) What does this have to do with the Pasuk in Naso "ve'Lo Yetam'u es *Machaneihem*"?

(d) What objection do we raise to this suggestion? Which Pasuk would they contravene if there was no Machaneh Yisrael?

(a) What is therefore the conclusion of the Sugya?

(b) And what did Rebbi Shimon mean when he said that Shiloh only comprised two Machanos? Which Machaneh was he precluding?

(c) And what do we then learn from the Pasuk in Mishpatim "Ve'samti Lecha Makom Asher Yanus Shamah"

(d) Why did Hashem refer to Moshe personally regarding this issue?

(a) What is the Din regarding a ben Levi who killed in one of the cities of refuge?

(b) How do we also learn from the "Ve'samti Lecha Makom" that if he ran to another district to a different area in the same city, that he may remain there?

(c) How do we also learn this from the Pasuk in Masei "Ki be'Ir Miklato Yeishev"?

(a) We have already learned that only Nedarim and Nedavos may be brought on a Bamah.
Why can this not possibly refer to a Bamah Gedolah?

(b) In what way then, did a Bamah Gedolah differ from a Bamah Ketanah?

(c) Then how could they bring their individual Korbenos Pesach, even on a Bamah Gedolah?

(a) According to Rebbi Meir, one may even bring Menachos and Neziros on a Bamah Ketanah.
Why does he list Neziros in the category of Nedarim and Nedavos?

(b) What do the Rabbanan say?

(a) Rebbi Yehudah agrees with the Rabbanan regarding a Bamas Yachid, but on a Bamah Gedolah, he permits whatever the Tzibur or a Yachid brought in the Mishkan.
What does that come to include?

(b) In which point does he disagree with Rebbi Meir and the Rabbanan?

(c) What is the problem with the Chachamim, who argue with Rebbi Yehudah in that point, and who then go on to permit a Yachid to bring only Olos and Shelamim, both on a Bamah Gedolah and a Bamah Ketanah?

Answers to questions



(a) Rebbi Shimon restricts even a Tzibur on a Bamah Gedolah to Pesachim and Chovos which have a fixed time.
What does this preclude?

(b) Rebbi Meir learns his Din from the Pasuk in Re'ei (in connection with the Bamah) "Ish Kol ha'Yashar be'Einav", which includes all Nedarim and Nedavos, but precludes all Chovos from all Bamos.
Why can the Pasuk not include Korbenos Tzibur in this ruling?

(c) What do the Rabbanan learn from "Zevachim" (in Acharei-Mos, in connection with Bamos)?

(a) Shmuel maintains that the Machlokes between Rebbi Meir and the Rabbanan is confined to Chatas and Asham, but does not extend to Olah and Shelamim.
Whose Korbanos is he referring to?

(b) What will they both then hold with regard to Olah and Shelamim?

(a) Rabah queries Shmuel from a Beraisa, where the Tana refers to the Chazeh ve'Shok and the Terumas Lachmei Todah.
What is the significance of ...
  1. ... the Chazeh ve'Shok?
  2. ... the Terumas Lachmei Todah?
(b) What does the Tana say about them?

(c) What does Rabah extrapolate from the fact that he fails to mention the Zero'a Besheilah? Why does this pose a Kashya on Shmuel?

(a) So how do we restructure Shmuel's statement?

(b) Who is then the author of this Beraisa?

(a) What do the Rabbanan of Rebbi Yehudah in our Mishnah learn from the Pasuk "Ish Kol ha'Yashar be'Einav Ya'aseh"?

(b) How does Rebbi Yehudah counter that, based on the word "be'Einav"?

(c) According to Rebbi Yehudah, we ask, why the Torah writes "Ish".
Why can we not answer that the Torah writes "Ish" to preclude a Yachid from Chovos on a Bamah Ketanah?

(d) Then why indeed does it write "Ish"?

(a) What do we learn from the Pasuk in Acharei-Mos "Ve'zarak ha'Kohen es ha'Dam ... Pesach Ohel Mo'ed"?

(b) Then why does Rebbi Yehudah require "Ish" to teach us that?

Answers to questions

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